Thanks a lot. The broker should have got paid when the loan was

I am not sure why they want to scare us.

Our current loan is with the lender's wholesale division, and the call that I got should be from their retial divison. As they are the same lender, the wholesale division should have no ground to charge us except to compain to their retail division. This is my understanding.

The 6 months contract with the broker is worrisome, but it clearly says we will get charged only when the lender or "the one that the loan has been sold to" charges to the broker.

If the loan has been sold to somebody (we didn't hear anything yet), can the lender be a shield for us if we did refinance with them within 6 months?

Thanks a lot again!

Middle-man (basically don't know which way to go)