很好玩的题

来源: haha2000 于 2009-01-16 12:47:36 [] [旧帖] [给我悄悄话] 阅读数 : (378 bytes)

m>n

f(m) - f(n) = 1/n sum_{1
f(2n) > f(n) since p(x+y)
This will prove 1

consider another case, n is a sufficiently large prime, m = p + 1
since in this p(m/k) = p(m/k) + p(1/k) when k
f(p+1)
this will prove 2

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• Interesting solution. Mine based on yours... :-) -乱弹- ♂ 给 乱弹 发送悄悄话 乱弹 的博客首页 (249 bytes) () 01/16/2009 postreply 13:47:06

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