FT(sinc(x)) becomes zero at lots of points, isn't it?
来源: career 于 2015-03-07 07:06:36 [档案] [转至博客] [旧帖] [给我悄悄话] 本文已被阅读:1 次 (53 bytes)
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回答: Bochner calls it "positive definite", not "NND". Get a better te 由 weston 于 2015-03-07 06:56:21
So it's non-negative definite.
:)
:)))
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Instead of spitting nonsense here, you should go to understand B
-weston-
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03/07/2015 postreply
09:08:04
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More likely, you misquoted that guy. :)
-career-
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03/07/2015 postreply
09:18:39
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Your memory of constructing positive definite funciton is failin
-weston-
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03/07/2015 postreply
09:41:18
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You forgot any integral over a zero-valued set yields zero. :)
-career-
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03/07/2015 postreply
11:19:23
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No. But the integral takes place over the entire space. Silly
-weston-
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03/07/2015 postreply
11:22:38
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Then look at your insisting on including the zero-valued subspac
-career-
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03/07/2015 postreply
11:29:43
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You learned Fourier by skipping all non-zero values of a functio
-weston-
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03/07/2015 postreply
11:42:21
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Show me where I did that? :)
-career-
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03/07/2015 postreply
11:48:47
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Out of (-.5, 0.5), rect's Lebesgue measure is zero:)
-career-
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03/07/2015 postreply
12:16:05
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Repeat one more time: Go and study Bochner Theorem (actually
-weston-
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03/07/2015 postreply
12:26:42
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Bochner/ Lebesgue won't CYA :)
-career-
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03/07/2015 postreply
12:40:48
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Gave you the math definition already. Your comment adds nothing
-weston-
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03/07/2015 postreply
13:07:01
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Got your "Say it the 3rd time, rec funcition is a step function.
-career-
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03/07/2015 postreply
13:10:25
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Too bad, you can't read math
-weston-
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03/07/2015 postreply
14:22:16