Hi all,
The correct answer is E. I was wondering why II is true. If x==z is true, and from x != y I I x != z, x != z is true, then wouldn't the statement be false?
Thanks
Hi all,
The correct answer is E. I was wondering why II is true. If x==z is true, and from x != y I I x != z, x != z is true, then wouldn't the statement be false?
Thanks
• 是这样 -瞧牌九段- ♂ (1301 bytes) () 09/23/2017 postreply 16:20:09
• Thank you! -my176- ♀ (0 bytes) () 09/23/2017 postreply 18:44:19