Again, 您的担心是多余的。

We talking about a = (1/n)^(1/(n-1)) and b = (1/n)^(n/(n-1)). Clearly, given an n, a and b are uniquely determined.  With infinite n, we have infinite a and b.  Your comment here dose not make any sense. Again, 您的担心是多余的。By the way, in the math proof, the simplier is better. 多余的担心 is unwanted.

所有跟帖： 

• 回复：Again, 您的担心是多余的。 -yddad- ♂ (193 bytes) () 11/02/2011 postreply 18:29:02

• You were confused -michigan007- ♀ (676 bytes) () 11/03/2011 postreply 06:25:20