We talking about a = (1/n)^(1/(n-1)) and b = (1/n)^(n/(n-1)). Clearly, given an n, a and b are uniquely determined. With infinite n, we have infinite a and b. Your comment here dose not make any sense. Again, 您的担心是多余的。By the way, in the math proof, the simplier is better. 多余的担心 is unwanted.
Again, 您的担心是多余的。
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回复:Again, 您的担心是多余的。
-yddad-
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11/02/2011 postreply
18:29:02
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You were confused
-michigan007-
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11/03/2011 postreply
06:25:20