inquiry: pre-nuptial agreement

I understand that in a pre-nuptial agreement, parties agree that their pre-marital property is not subject to division upon divorce. I also understand that such agreement does not extend to marital property earned after marriage. (Therefore, marital property, such as each spouse's income, is subject to division upon divorce.) My question is: can two parties in a pre-nuptial agreement stipulate that their marital property, including their repective income earned after marriage, shall not be subject to division upon divorce? If such an agreement is struck, is it going to be recognized? Is it going to be refused recognition for violation of public policy?