You are one step away.

Your claim is correct:

Force_at_wheel = Q * K / R,

where Q=torque_at_engine, K=engine_speed/wheel_speed.

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One step ahead:

because, hp=Q * engine_speed
(if we use international unit, w,N*m, and rad/sec)

hence,
Force_at_wheel = Q * K / R = (hp/engine_speed) * (engine_speed/wheel_speed) /R
Force_at_wheel = hp / wheel_speed /R

That means, at certain car speed, your acceration is determined by hp, not Q.

the above is:
hp = wheel_speed * Q_at_wheel

interesting, isn't it?

所有跟帖： 

• where is our control? -TBz- ♂ (176 bytes) () 12/09/2005 postreply 00:02:57

• Interesting, but... -Bonbon330S- ♂ (1434 bytes) () 12/09/2005 postreply 04:30:32

• In other words, -Bonbon330S- ♂ (766 bytes) () 12/09/2005 postreply 04:56:50

• Sigh. -TBz- ♂ (460 bytes) () 12/09/2005 postreply 08:19:11

• No need to sigh :) -Bonbon330S- ♂ (1196 bytes) () 12/09/2005 postreply 14:05:58

• 握手言和 -TBz- ♂ (165 bytes) () 12/09/2005 postreply 22:30:06